The problem that I have with this scenario is that the convicted felon used his right to own a gun to commit a crime. So they set a precedent that they were not responsible enough to own a gun, because they used that right to commit a crime. I don't think someone convicted of armed robbery with a gun should be allowed to own a gun once out of prison.
Someone who loses his right to vote because they committed a felony didn't lose their right to vote specifically because they used their right to vote to commit a crime.
So not really apples to apples comparison, although I understand where you and Sleeve are trying to go. Next time someone is convicted of a felony because of voting I'll be ok with them not having the vote after they get out of prison.
Someone who loses his right to vote because they committed a felony didn't lose their right to vote specifically because they used their right to vote to commit a crime.
So not really apples to apples comparison, although I understand where you and Sleeve are trying to go. Next time someone is convicted of a felony because of voting I'll be ok with them not having the vote after they get out of prison.





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