Originally posted by Wh33lhop
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Intellectual engine questionnnnn...
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i'm saying theoretically it stops at the top and bottom for an infinitely small amount of time. basically immeasurable amount of time. but in practice, i would guess there is slight side to side motion in the cylinder because of the way a crank is and the rod being connected to that. so it is probably always in motion in some direction whether it be vertical or horizontal. its tough because a crank is circular and the piston is vertical. but the rod is like both depending on which side of it you're looking at
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well, no. if position = sin(t), velocity is δposition/δt = δ/δt sin(t) = cos(t). acceleration is δvelocity/δt = δ/δt cos(t) = -sin(t).Originally posted by TwoJ's View PostGuys... come on guys.
Thank you for reminding us of Newton's second law. So in a sine-like wave form, TDC and BDC still have a derivitave of zero, yes? So what's the acceleration of an object with zero velocity? Mr. Newton's second law makes it pretty clear what the net force is when something isn't accelerating.
if position is
acceleration will be that wave flipped, with maxima and minima exactly where TDC and BDC occur in the position plot.
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Does the piston actually exist? Or are we just imagining it existing because that is all we know of internal combustion? Can that same piston exist in two different cylinders at the same moment in time?Originally posted by LEANE30 View PostI fail to see anything in this thread yet that would constitute an "intellectual engine question". I am thoroughly disappointed, this thread fails.
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Acceleration is NOT velocity. You are confusing the two.Originally posted by frankenbeemer View PostSeems like by F=ma, the force must be zero at some point. Not that it matters. :twisted:
You too.Originally posted by TwoJ's View PostGuys... come on guys.
Thank you for reminding us of Newton's second law. So in a sine-like wave form, TDC and BDC still have a derivitave of zero, yes? So what's the acceleration of an object with zero velocity? Mr. Newton's second law makes it pretty clear what the net force is when something isn't accelerating.paint sucks
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Sounds like you're way too smart for the rest of us.Originally posted by LEANE30 View PostI fail to see anything in this thread yet that would constitute an "intellectual engine question". I am thoroughly disappointed, this thread fails. I had hopes for a topic like harmonic resonance tuning for ideal peak placements or something.
Well, actually it does a little bit, since it will alter the piston's stroke pattern (smaller rod ratio will make the piston dwell more at tdc/bdc); however, that's not what I said.Rod ratio has nothing to do with the vertical loads placed on the piston at the wrist pin.
:rofl:Originally posted by quickervicar View PostDoes the piston actually exist? Or are we just imagining it existing because that is all we know of internal combustion? Can that same piston exist in two different cylinders at the same moment in time?paint sucks
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Well Newton's laws are still technically considered theories.Originally posted by TwoJ's View PostGuys... come on guys.
Thank you for reminding us of Newton's second law. So in a sine-like wave form, TDC and BDC still have a derivitave of zero, yes? So what's the acceleration of an object with zero velocity? Mr. Newton's second law makes it pretty clear what the net force is when something isn't accelerating.
So yeah, fuck everything!
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Not confusing anything (ACTUALLY CONFUSING SIMPLE MATH). Did you take calc and/or physics in high school? Or 101 stuff in college? dv/dt= Acceleration. The slope of a tangent line of a velocity curve (dv/dt) is acceleration. So tell me, what is the slope of a line that is horizontal (TDC and BDC).Originally posted by Wh33lhop View PostAcceleration is NOT velocity. You are confusing the two.
You too.
Again... not confusing anything. If V=0 (even just for an instant), then maths and physics tells us that acceleration is zero. And what is the net force of something that isn't accelerating? Zero.
So... when V=0 it follows that a=0. When A=0, it follows that F=0. Simple as that.Last edited by TwoJ's; 03-20-2013, 01:39 PM.
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velocity isn't horizontal at TDC and BDC, it's at the zero point, with a nonzero slope. read my post again, then read his post again.Originally posted by TwoJ's View PostNot confusing anything. Did you take calc and/or physics in high school? Or 101 stuff in college? dv/dt= Acceleration. The slope of a tangent line of a velocity curve (dv/dt) is acceleration. So tell me, what is the slope of a line that is horizontal (TDC and BDC).
Again... not confusing anything. If V=0 (even just for an instant), then maths and physics tells us that acceleration is zero. And what is the net force of something that isn't accelerating? Zero.
So... when V=0 it follows that a=0. When A=0, it follows that F=0. Simple as that.
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